Do I still hold to 'Inerrancy'?

I was asked, by Brian LePort, to answer these questions relative to my view on Inerrancy:

• Do you use the word “inerrancy” to describe your understanding of Scripture? Why or why not? (If not, can you explain your “doctrine of Scripture?”)
• If you were to provide a brief definition of the doctrine of inerrancy what would it include? 
• Can there be a doctrine of inerrancy divorced from the Chicago Statement on Biblical Inerrancy? If so, what are the “practical” consequences? If not, why?  
• How does your doctrine of Scripture impact your hermeneutics? Can you use Genesis 1-11 as a case study/example?

My responses will be posted by Brian at his blog tomorrow around noon (pst). You might be interested in hearing what I have to say. Although if you go to the Evangelical Calvinist archive (my old blog on wordpress), and click on the 'doctrine of Scripture' category, and read all of those posts; you might have an advanced understanding on the way that I might have responded to Brian's questions. Although, further, my responses to Brian are more definitive than anything, heretofore, I have expressed on my current views in this regard.

I am only one of many folk Brian sent this questionnaire to; he has been sharing some other people's responses over the past few days. And I think there will probably be some more after mine is posted tomorrow. Check out his blog here.